AP PGECET- 2016(Civil Engineering)

A System of homogeneous linear equations AX = 0 has a nontrivial solution if

If 2, 1+2i are the eigen values of a third order matrix A, then the third eigen value is

If f(x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) satisfy Lagrange Mean Value theorem at c in the interval [1,3] then c =

One root of the equation f(x) = 2x² – 5x +2 = 0 lies in the interval

A cantilever beam is subjected to a moment at the free end. The shape of the shear force diagram is a

In a simply supported beam subjected to __________loading, the shapes of the shear force diagram and bending moment diagram will be similar.

A number of forces acting on a point will be in equilibrium if

The point of contraflexure in a fixed beam subjected to uniformly distributed load is_______ times the span of the beam.

The rotation at the free end of a cantilever beam subjected to a concentrated load of 10 kN is 0.003 radians. If the same beam is subjected at an end moment 15 kNm at the free end, then deflection at the free end is

In a symmetrical I section, the maximum shear stress is carried by

The ratio of elongation of a conical bar due to its own weight and that of a prismatic bar is

Two beams of rectangular section are A and B. Beam A is 300 × 500 mm and Beam B is 500 ×300 mm. The ratio of torsional strength of beam A to B is

The bending stress in a beam is

The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of a circular cross section of radius 25 mm and 3 metre effective length is

The buckling load does not depend on

A three hinged arch is___________structure.

A _____beam is kinematically determinate but statically indeterminate.

If U is the total strain energy of the trunk and W is the single load applied at the joint then the deflection under the applied load is ∆ = k(u/w) where k is a constant and its value is

The flexibility co-efficient in matrix method of analysis depends on

In Stiffness method of Matrix Analysis of Structures, the unknowns to be determined are

When a concentrated load W moves over a railway bridge of span L, the equivalent uniformly distributed is____(W/L)

The approximate compressive strength of concrete at 7 days to 28 days is ____ percent

An RC rectangular slab has the dimensions ‘I_y’ in longer span and ‘I_x’ along the shorter span respectively. The ratio (I_y/I_x)<2 and it is supported on opposite longer sides and the other two sides are free. It is to be designed as

The permissible stress in concrete of an RC beam under shear is computed from percentage of ______ and _______

The short term deflection of an RC beam is calculated using the value of modular ratio ‘m’ as

In an RC element, 8 mm diameter bars are to be provided at 80 mm centre to centre. If 10 mm dia bars are to be used in place of 8 mm then the spacing is _____mm.

In the load balancing method applied to PSC beams with parabolic cables, the equivalent distributed load is_____ (Pe/I²)

The minimum and maximum percentage of compression reinforcement in column is _______ of the gross area.

The maximum spacing of vertical stirrups is

Critical section for one way shear in footing is taken from the face of column at a distance of

In property class of 8.8 bolts the first number 8 and the second number 8 indicate ultimate tensile stress of _____ and yield stress of ______

The number of plastic hinges requires to form a mechanism in case of propped cantilever subjected to udl is

Lug angles are used to

In the analysis of beam columns, principle of ______ is not valid.

The economical depth of welded plate girder for M=6800 kNm, (d/tw) =180 and f_y = 250MPa is approximately_______mm

In the design of column bases the bearing strength of concrete as per IS 800 is taken as _____

The lacing bars in built up column is to be designed for a total transverse shear equal ___ of the column load and the slenderness ratio of the lacing should not exceed____

The design compressive strength of an axially loaded compression member as per IS 800-2007 is based on ______ formula

The minimum size of weld should not be less than ______ mm and more than _______ thickness of plate.

In the plastic analysis of beams, the upper bound theorem satisfy _____ conditions.

A saturated undisturbed sample from a clay stratum has a moisture content of 30% and a specific gravity of 2.7. The void ratio of the clay is

The void ratios of sand sample in the densest and loosest conditions are 0.4 and 1.2 respectively. The relative density of the soil for the in-situ void ratio of 0.6 will be

The field density and field moisture content of a soil can be determined by

1. Core cutter method
2. Sand replacement method
3. Proctor compaction test
4. Modified Proctor compaction test

The liquid limit and plastic limit of a specimen of clayey silt are 40% and 20% respectively. The natural moisture content is 30%. Its plasticity index and consistency index will respectively be

If soil is dried beyond shrinkage limit, it will show

Consider the following statements.

1. Organic matter decreases the permeability of soil
2. Entrapped air decreases the permeability of soil

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Effective stress on soil

The soils most susceptible to liquefaction are

During consolidation process of clayey soils, indicate the sequence of the following in the order from first to last:

1. Load being taken up by the pore water
2. Load being taken up by the soil grains
3. Drainage of water from the pores of the soil

A borrow pit soil has a dry density of 16 kN/m³. How many cubic meters of this soil will be required to construct an embankment of 100 m³ with a dry density of 17 kN/m³.

If, instead of single drainage, the number of drainage faces is increased to two in responding soils, the rate of compression will be

For a sample of dry cohesionless soil with friction angle, Ø, the failure plane will be inclined to the major principal plane by an angle equal to

A sample of saturated cohesionless soil tested in a drained triaxial compression test showed an angle of internal friction of 30^o. The deviator stress at failure for the sample at a confining pressure of 200 kPa is equal to

The appropriate field test to determine the in-situ undrained shear strength of a soft clay is

A river 5 m deep consists of a sand bed with saturated unit weight of 20 kN/m³,Y_w = 10 kN/m³. The effective vertical stress at 5 m from the top of sand bed is

The lateral earth pressure coefficients of a soil, K_a for active state, K_p for passive state and K_o for at rest condition, compare as:

Which of the following factors affect the bearing capacity of cohesive soils?

1. Density of soil
2. Angle of internal friction of soil
3. Depth of footing
4. Width of footing

Amongst the clay minerals, the one having the maximum swelling tendency is

Sand drains are used to

Consider the following statements:

1. Friction piles are also called floating piles
2. Minimum number of piles to qualify as a pile group is three
3. The group efficiency of a pile group may be either less than 100% or more than 100%

Which of these statements are correct?

Surface tension is due to

The Bernoulli’s equation is applicable to

If a water jet of area 0.02 m² strikes at 10 m/s normally on a stationary plate, the force exerted on the plate is

The loss of head in a pipe carrying turbulent flow varies

It is proposed to increase the discharge by 20% in a circular pipe carrying oil in laminar regime. If all other factors remain unchanged, power consumption to maintain the modified flow relative to the original flow would increase by

The average drag coefficient for a laminar boundary layer over a flat plate was obtained as 0.018. If all other factors remain unchanged, and the length of the plate is increased by 4 times its original value, the average drag coefficient would change to

Singing of telephone wires in the wind occurs due to

In an open-channel flow, for a given discharge

1. alternate depths are the depths having same kinetic energy
2. alternate depths are the depths having same specific energy
3. conjugate depths are the depths having same specific force
4. conjugate depths are the depths having same momentum force

Which of the above statements are correct?

For a hydraulically efficient triangular channel, the ratio of hydraulic radius to depth of flow is

Which of the following GVF profiles are drawdown profiles?

A hydraulic jump occurs when there is a break in grade from a

Flow measurements with a Prandtl-Pitot tube showed that the tip readings varied only across the flow while the side-opening readings varied only in the direction flow. The type of flow is

In 1:100 model of a spillway, the discharge is 0.1 m³/s. The corresponding discharge in the prototype in m³/s is

Consider the following types of turbines

1. Francis
2. Pelton with a single jet
3. Kaplan

The sequence of these turbines in the increasing order of their specific speeds is

Two identical pumps, each capable of delivering 0.2 cumec against a head of 30 m, are connected in parallel. The resulting discharge is

The rainfall on four successive days over a catchment are 2, 6, 9 and 5 cm. If Ø = 5 cm/day, the direct runoff from the catchment is

If the peak of a 2 h unit hydrograph is 20 m³/s, the peak ordinate of a flood hydrograph due to an effective rainfall of 2 cm of 2 hour duration with a base flow 5 m³/s is

A water shed of area 100 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.4. A storm of duration larger than the time of concentration of the watershed and of intensity 3.6 cm/h carries a peak discharge of

The volume of water that can be extracted by force of gravity from a unit volume of aquifer material is called

A flood wave with a known inflow hydrograph is routed through a large uncontrolled reservoir. The outflow hydrograph will have

In an irrigated land , the net irrigation requirement of a crop is found to be 14 cm, the water application efficiency is 80% and the water conveyance efficiency is 70%. The gross irrigation requirement is

A canal irrigates a cultural command area to grow sugarcane and wheat. The average discharges required to grow them are 0.36 and 0.27 respectively. The time factor is 0.9. The required discharge of the canal is

For a clayey soil, when there is nearly 50% drop in the available moisture, the ratio of actual to potential evapotranspiration is

Two different channels, M and N, in two different sites are designed based on Lacey’s theory, to carry the same quantum of discharge. But the bed material of M is found to be finer than that of N.

At the base of a gravity dam section, the vertical stress at the toe was found to be 2.4 MPa. If the downstream face of the dam has a slope of 0.707 horizontal : 1 vertical, and if there is no tail water, the maximum principal stress at the toe of the dam is

In the treatment of 20,000 m³/day of water, the amount of chlorine used is 12 kg/day. The residual chlorine after 10 minutes contact is 0.25 mg/l. The chlorine demand in kg per day is

The order of unit processes, rapid mixing(RM), flocculation(F), primary sedimentation(PS), secondary sedimentation(SS), chlorination(C) and rapid sand filtration(RSF) (first to last) commonly used in a convention water treatment plant is

MPN index is a measure of one of the following:

Aeration of water is done to remove

Blue baby disease in children is caused by the presence of excess

The water distribution mains are designed for

The alkalinity and the hardness of a water sample are 250 mg/l and 350 mg/l as CaCO₃, respectively. Then water has

A combined sewer is one which carries

The relationship between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by

Critical factors for the activated sludge treatment process are

The main constituents of gas generated during the anaerobic digestion of the sludge are

During temperature inversion in the atmosphere, air pollutants tend to

Ozone layer depletion is because of

The presence of organic matter as the significant portion of a solid waste indicates its suitability for

Two sources generate noise levels of 90 dB and 94 dB respectively. The cumulative effect of these noise levels on the human ear is

The rate of super elevation for a horizontal curve of radius 500 m in a national highway for a design speed of 100 kmph is

Bitumen of grade 80/100 means

The position of base course in a flexible pavement is

Traffic capacity is the

When two roads with two-lane, two-way traffic, cross at an uncontrolled intersection, the total number of potential major conflict points would be

The plan of a survey plotted to a scale of 10 m to 1 cm is reduced in such a way that a line originally 10 cm long now measures 9 cm. The area of the reduced plan is measured as 81 cm². The actual area of the survey in m² is

The whole circle bearing of line AB is 50^o and of line BC is 120^o. The deflection angle at B from AB to BC is

The rise and fall method of reduction of level readings provides arithmetic check on

After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations needed at each plane table station are 1. Levelling 2. Orientation 3. Centering

The correct sequence of these operations is

L of a floor is 200.490. Staff reading on the floor is 1.695 m. Reading on the staff held upside down against the bottom of the roof is 3.305 m. Height of the ceiling is