FMGE General Medicine Question Base

In hemolytic anemia, of the following are true except:

Most common form of shock is:

Dialysis is not effective in:

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is associated with :

In alpha-thalassemia trait,electrophoresis shows:

Not a feature of hereditary Spherocytosis:

Causes of megaloblastic anaemia are all except:

First investigation to be done in a patient with thrombocytopenia:

Which of the following is not A side effect of blood transfusion:

Changes of megaloblastic anemia which may not be corrected by administering folic acid:

A 50 year old patient with abdominal discomfort since last 2 years, was found to have a large spleen of 3 kg. Bone marrow is difficult to aspirate. Most probable diagnosis is:

False statement regarding DIC is:

Fresh frozen plasma is used for:

A young girl presents with repeated episodes of bleeding. BT and APTT is prolonged and PT is normal. What is the likely condition:

Diagnostic text for Disseminated Intravascular coagulation is:

Most important factor determining myocardial oxygen consumption :

Which of the following is not a cause of Cor pulmonal :

Dressler’s syndrome is due to:

A -wave in JVP indicates:

Wide split fixed 2nd heart sound is heard in:

Most important in aetiology of coronary artery disease is:

100% Oxygen is not effective in:

True regarding secondary prophylaxis of a 6 year old child with carditis is:

Severity of mitral stenosis is determined by:

ST segment elevation is seen in:

Continuous murmur is found in which arterial disease :

Swan Ganz Catheter is used to measure:

Which of the following is seen in a patient with tricuspid Incompetence:

Pulsus bisferiens occurs in:

Most common feature of essential hypertension:

Left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by all except:

Malignant hypertension can lead to all of the following except:

ECG changes in atrial fibrillation do not include:

Rupture of myocardium takes place in what duration after myocardial infarction:

Austin Flint Murmur is commonly mistaken for the murmur of:

Large ‘a’ waves in JVP represents:

Acute anginal attack can be terminated by:

Carotid sinus massage will terminate:

Which of the following is the most common arrhythmia:

Pacemaker is indicated in which of the following condition :

Indication for aortic stenting is:

One of the main disadvantage of stenting is:

Preferred biochemical markers in patients presenting with myocardial infarction

Split first heart sound is heard in:

A 20 year old female patient has non exertional chest pain. On auscultation, she had multiple non -ejection clicks. Investigation of choice would be:

False regarding Austin -Flint murmur is:

A lady presented with dyspnea and palpitations. On examination there was a non ejection click. Next investigation is:

Austin flint murmur is a:

Dyspnoea at rest is which grade:

Murmur heard in aortic regurgitation is:

Pericardial effusion is best diagnosed by:

Treatment of orthostatic hypotension includes all except :

A patient presented with shock with pump failure. Ideal management would be:

Most common valvular lesion after myocardial infarction is:

A patient with inferior wall myocardial infarction is in shock.The reason is :

All of the following can lead to sudden death except:

Pulsus alternans is seen in:

Kussmaul’s sign is not seen in:

Pulsus paradoxus is not seen in:

Which of the following is a high pitched sound:

Kussmaul’s sign is seen in which of the following:

Following acute failure of left ventricle in man, pulmonary edema generally begins to appear when left atrial pressure approaches:

Drug used for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease:

Drug contra -indicated in HOCM is:

Wolff-Parkinson-White disease may be associated with which of the congenital heart defect:

Best time to administer long term nirates for nocturnal angina:

Syndrome characterized by proteinuria, hematuria and hypertension:

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by all of the following except:

True statement regarding oliguria:

Hemodialysis related complications are all of the following except:

Most common cause of death in a patient with chronic renal failure on dailysis:

Renal artery stenosis is not associated with:

Nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomic for:

To diagnose diabetic nephropathy, earliest sensitive test is:

Which of the following is not seen in chronic renal failure :

A patient has serum creatinine of 150-300 micromol/L. Which of the following require dosage reduction:

Which is not true for renal cell carcinoma:

Renal vein thrombosis is associated with all of the following except:

Best marker to assess prognosis after Surgery for colon carcinoma:

Hepatorenal syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:

Typhoid ulcer perforation mostly occurs in:

82.45 year old man complaining of vomiting Vomitus consist of food mass taken few days back, foul smelling breath and occasional dysphagia to solid food. Diagnosis is:

True about hepatitis E are all except:September 2005, 2010

All of the following are features of obstructive jaundice except:

All are the features of carcinoid syndrome except:

An young man is brought to casualty with history of hematemesis. There is mild splenomegaly on examination. Cause of bleeding is :

Enzyme specifically raised in chronic alcoholics:

Hepatosplenomegaly is not seen in:

Positive D-xylose test indicates all of the following except :

Spirochaetes can be identified by:

Most common CNS manifestation of HIV infection is:

Post exposure prophylaxis [PEP] for HIV should be given for a minimum period of:

Bacteria causing vomiting and diarrhea Within 6 hours of food intake is:

Not a cutaneous manifestation of tuberculosis:

Respiratory system infections in HIV is seen with:

Chest X-ray findings in tuberculosis associated with HIV are all except:

Drug used to treat Cryptococcal meningitis is:

Which of the following is not true about Mumps:

Which of the following is best for diagnosing typhoid in the first week:

All are true about Amoebic liver abscess except:

Which drug is given as a single dose to prevent mother to child HIV transmission:

Possibility of vertical transfer of HIV infection if prophylaxis is given :

Possibility of vertical transfer of HIV infection if no prophylaxis is given:

True regarding sialadenitis in AIDS are all except:

Not seen in dengue:

Symptoms of secondary syphilis are all except:

Which infection is common after organ transplantation:

Most common malignancy in AIDS is:

Average incubation period of AIDS is:

Pathognomic lesion in HIV is :

Pretibial myxedema is seen in:

Long term control of diabetes is assessed by:

All of the following are features of hypothyroidism except:

Complications in Diabetics mellitus type —H occurs around:

HblAC indicates blood glucose level in the previous:

Pheochromocytoma is a feature of all of the following except:

Pheochromocytoma is characterized by:

Pheochromocytoma predominantly secretes which hormone:

Excessive insulin levels are associated with:

Which of the following is seen in Conn’s syndrome: 

Diffuse hyperpigmentation is seen in all except:

All of the following are features of hyperthyroidism except :

All of the following are true regarding primary hyperparathyroidism except:

A patient of tuberculosis presented with low levels of sodium, chloride and bicarbonate. He also had hyperpigmentation of palmar creases. Most probable diagnosis is:

Which of the following plays an important role in the treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis:

Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism:

Weight gain is seen in all of the following except:

Not seen in cushing’s syndrome:

All of the following are seen in acromegaly except:

Not true about congenital hypothyroidism:

Most common cause of hypothyroidism in India:

Investigation of choice for diagnosing primary hypothyroidism:

Most common form of diabetic neuropathy is:

Regarding typhoid ulcer, all of the following are true except:

True regarding level of sugar in hyperosmolar non ketotic hyperglycemia is:

Primary causes of non -inflammatory edema include all of the following except:

Adrenal insufficiency causes:

Test of choice for diagnosing cushings syndrome:

Tetany is not seen in:

Normal anion gap acidosis seen in:

pH=7.28, PaCO2=70, Condition is consistent with:

Hypocalcemia with hypophosphatemia is seen in:

All of the following are used in the management of hyperkalemia except:

Not seen in hyponatremia:

Neurological manifestations of water intoxication are all of the following except:

Normal anionic gap is seen in:

Increased plasma concentration of calcium is associated with:

Not an ECG finding of hypokalemia:

Features of T wave in ECG of hypokalemia patients are all except:

Anion gap is increased in all except:

The ECG in hyperkalemia classically shows:

Which of the following is not associated with zinc deficiency:

Hyponatremia is seen in all of the following except:

Pontine myelinolysis (cerebral osmotic demyelination) occurs due to rapid correction of:

Hyponatremia results in:

Wernicke’s encephalopathy, during refeeding syndrome, can be precipitated in deficiency of which of the following vitamin:

Not seen in case of hemorrhage in MCA territory:

Brain death is defined as loss of:

Characteristic of Guillain-Barre syndrome is :

Spike and Dome pattern is seen in:

An upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve will cause:

Argyll -Robertson pupil is seen in:

CSF findings in Tubercular meningitis:

Most Common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:

Initial Investigation of choice of subarachnoid hemorrhage:

Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors are seen in:

Most common cause for meningitis in adults:

Kernig’s sign is seen in:

Flapping tremor is seen in all except:

Bilaterally pinpoint pupil, hyperpyrexia and loss of consciousness is suggestive of:

Dominant parietal lobe injury leads to all of the following except:

Most common cause of intracranial bleed is:

Which of the following sensation is preserved on the side of the lesion in Brown-Sequard syndrome:

Cranial nerve commonly involved in Guillain Barre syndrome is:

Most common causative agent for meningitis in the immunocompromised patient is:

Not a component of thalamic syndrome:

Most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage:

A 35 year old female patient presents with proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easily fatiguability. The most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis:

Management of steroid resistant asthma is done by:

Lung Carcinoma is most commonly associated with:

True about COPD are all except:

Characteristic of obstructive pulmonary disease are all except:

Respiratory acidosis is caused by all except:

Pulmonary edema will be caused by:

All of the following are signs of Cor pumonale except:

Diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome is:

Most common occupational malignancy in India is:

Positive End Expiratory Pressure is useful in:

Investigation of choice in pulmonary embolism:

ECG pattern seen in pulmonary embolism is:

Most common ECG change in pulmonary embolism is :

True regarding type -III respiratory failure are all except :

Type -II respiratory failure is associated with:

Example of type -I respiratory failure is:

True about ARDS are all except:

Most common symptom of Interstitial Lung disease is :

True about Pancoast tumour are all of the following except :

Investigation of choice for diagnosing lung sequestration is:

Characteristic of type -II respiratory failure is:

Which of the following does not present with hemoptysis:

Which of the following is not given for acute severe bronchial asthma:

Which of the following correlates well with the “severe” type of bronchial asthma exacerbation:

Cavitation of the lungs is not a feature of:

Most common cause of hypercapnic respiratory failure:

Hemoptysis is commonly seen in:

True about panacinar emphysema:

True about pleural effusion:

Which of the following is used for improving long term prognosis in COPD with resting hypoxemia:

Associated with obstructive sleep apnea are all of the following except:

Treatment regimen for Hodgkins lymphoma is:

Not seen in tumor lysis syndrome:

False statement regarding Hodgkin’s disease is:

Working formulation in staging of non-hodgkins lymphoma is based on:

A male presents with gynaecomastia, galactorrhoea and hypogonadism. Likely diagnosis is:

Tumour lysis syndrome is associated with treatment of :

Prognosis of lymphoma depends on all of the following except:

Bone marrow plasmacytosis in multiple myeloma is characteristically more than:

Which of the following is used in the management of prolcatinoma:

45 year old man complains of back pain and multiple joints pain. X-Ray shows bilateral sacroilitis. Diagnosis could be:

Anti mitothondrial antibody is typically seen in :

Characteristic of mixed connective -tissue disease [MCTD] are all of the following except:

Patient complaining of finger stiffness and dysphagia. What could be the most probable diagnosis :

Not a premalignant condition:

Nephrocalcinosis seen in all except:

Hypercholesterolemia is commonly associated with: