FMGE General Surgery Question Base

All of the following are true regarding fluid resuscitation in burn patients except:

According to “rule of nines”, burns involving perineum are:

Which of the following is not seen in 3rd degree burns:

In second degree burns, re-epithelialisation occurs around :

Which of the following is false regarding deep 2nd degree burns:

In burns management, which of the following is the medium of choice:

All of the following are complications in a patient on total parenteral nutrition except:

Palmar surface of hand represents:

In burns management (within 24 hours), which of the following is the medium of choice:

A patient with burns die within 24 hours. What could be the most probable cause:

Fluid of choice for replacement in burn patients:

Initial method to prevent infection in burn patients:

Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in:

Which of the following is associated with Virchows triad:

Hemorrhage leads to:

Which of the following is true for shock:

Most common vessels to be affected in Buergers disease:

Drug used for sclerotherapy of varicose veins are all of the following except:

Raynaud’s syndrome occurs in all of the following except:

In traumatic cases, shock is most likely due to:

All of the following are true regarding DVT except:

Sequence of colour changes observed in Raynaud’s disease :

Buerger’s disease usually affects all of the following except:

Nicoladoni Branham’s sign is seen in:

True regarding haemangioma of the spleen:

Which of the following is spared in lumbar sympathectomy:

Seldinger needle is used for:

Brodie-Trendelenburg test is positive in:

For shock patient, best guideline to check for adequacy of fluid replacement therapy:

A 60 year old male has been operated for carcinoma of caecum and right hemicolectomy has been done. On the 4th post -operative day, the patient develops fever, swelling and pain in the legs. The most important clinical entity one should look for is:

Test which is not done for varicose veins:

Number of lobes in liver as per Couinaud’s classification:

Which of the following is not a complication of pseudopancreatic cyst:

All of the following are associated with the gall stones except:

Most commonly ruptured organ in blunt trauma to abdomen is:

Grey Turner’s sign in seen in:

Acute pancreatitis causes all of the following except:

All of the following are associated with carcinoid syndrome except:

Acute Pancreatitis is associated with:

Trauma to spleen in a stable patient is best diagnosed by :

Splenectomy can lead to:

Investigation of choice for Acute pancreatitis:

Charcoat triad is seen in:

Investigation for assessing proper functioning of biliary system:

Best way to diagnose gall bladder stones:

Charcot’s triad is refined by all of the following except:

Which of the following is the most pathognomonic sign of impending burst abdomen:

Which of the investigation can itself lead to acute pancreatitis:

Indications of splenectomy are all except:

All of the following regarding diagnosis of acute peritonitis are correct except:

Most sensitive and specific for acute pancreatitis amongst the following is:

Splenectomy is useful in:

Pentad of pain, fever, jaundice, confusion and shock is seen in:

Most common type of gallstone in India is:

Investigation of choice for hydatid disease is:

All of the following are common cause of post splenectomy infections except:

Management of infected pancreatic necrosis includes all of the following except:

Investigation of choice for acute cholecystitis:

Calculous cholecystitis is associated with all of the following except:

Chronic calcific pancreatitis is associated with all of the following except:

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:

True regarding primary sclerosing cholangitis associated with ulcerative colitis are all of the following except:

Investigation of choice for diagnosing intra abdominal bleeding in an unstable patient:

All of the following are seen with bile duct stone except:

Which of the following statement is true regarding pyogenic liver abscess:

Reversed “3” sign on barium studies is seen in which condition:

All of the following are true regarding splenic rupture except:

A 26 year old male presented with 4 day history of pain in the right sided lower abdomen with frequent vomiting. Patients GC is fair and clinically a tender lump was felt in the right iliac fossa. Most appropriate management for this case would be:

Investigation of choice for gall bladder stone is:

A 70 year female patient having coronary artery disease was found to have asymptomatic gallstones on routine ultrasound scan of the abdomen. What the best management for his gallstones:

Splenectomy is not done in:

Which is not a cause for burst abdomen:

Non -metabolic cause of abdominal pain:

Routine management of paralytic ileus include all of the following except:

Ideal management in an old and frail patient presenting with a mass situated 15 cm away from anal orifice :

Dumping syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:

Which of the following is not associated with Crohn’s disease:

Hirschsprung’s disease involves which region of intestine :

Hirschsprung’s disease is diagnosed by :

Which of the following is the investigation of choice for diagnosing carcinoma colon:

Uncommon complication of meckels diverticulum is:

Acute appendicitis is characterized by all of the following except:

True about Barrett’s esophagus are all of the following except:

Commonest cause of peptic ulcer disease:

Commonest cause of esophageal perforation:

Entero enteric fistula is found in all except:

Which of the following statement is false:

Which of the following is not a commoner cause of intestinal perforation:

Commonest operation done for gastric outlet obstruction with peptic ulcer is:

Metabolic disturbance seen with pyloric stenosis:

Heller’s myotomy is done for:

A patient presents with history of mild diarrhea blood in stools with multiple fistulas. What is the most probable diagnosis :

All of the following predisposes to carcinoma of the esophagus except:

Ochsner-Sherren regimen is used for:

Trichobezoar is pathological ingestion of:

Most common site of volvulus

Which of the following is false regarding gastro oesophageal reflux disease:

The commonest cause of significantly lower gastrointestinal bleed in a middle aged person without any known precipitating factor may be due to

Which of the following is not true for ZoRinger-Ellison syndrome:

Which of the following plays a major role in the development of dumping syndrome:

Treatment of an incidentally detected appendicular carcinoid measuring 2.5 cm is:

Features of achalsia cardia are all of the following except:

Villous adenoma presents as :

Which of these is not a premalignant lesion of lesion:

In pyloric stenosis, the following changes are seen:

Treatment of choice for small intestine carcinoma:

Which of the following is a dynamic cause of intestinal obstruction:

Enteo-enteric fistula is seen in:

Sister Mary Joseph nodule is most commonly seen with :

True statement regarding Barrett’s esophagus:

Which of the following is not a premalignant condition :

Spigelian hernia is :

Strangulation most commonly occurs in:

True regarding indirect inguinal hernia are all except :

If caecum is involved as a part of the wall of hernial sac and is not its content, then it will be known as:

Most common type of hernia in the young age group:

While operating upon strangulated hernia, the sac is opened at:

Which of the following describes Richter’s hernia:

Hernia which often simulates a peptic ulcer is:

Viscera, forms a wall in which of the following hernia :

Investigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux is:

Seminoma is carcinoma of:

Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed mainly by:

Lateral internal sphincterotomy is useful for:

Treatment of choice for 3rd degree hemorrhoids is:

Which one of the following is radiolucent stone:

True about incompletely descended testis are all of the following except:

Most radiosensitive testicular tumour is:

Erythroplasia of Queyrat occurs in:

A 25 year old man presents with hydrocele on the left side. Associated condition could be a:

Treatment of stage I teratoma is:

Fournier’s gangrene is seen in:

Most common testicular tumour in 4th decade is:

Following urethral rupture, immediate procedure to be done is:

Delirium, mental confusion and nausea in patients who had undergone transurethral resection of prostate suggests:

Associated with urinary bladder carcinoma are all of the following except:

All of the following are radio -opaque stones except:

Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is suggestive of:

Thimble bladder is seen in:

Narrowest part of the urethra is:

Which of the following causes orchitis without epididymitis:

Drainage of venous blood from testes following division of testicular vein for treatment of varicocele is by:

Spider -leg appearance is seen in:

All of the following are seen in chronic pyloric obstruction except:

In 3 -glass urine test, there is thread in the first glass. What is the probable diagnosis:

Predisposing factors for carcinoma of penis are all of the following except:

Lord’s and Jaboulay’s operation is done for:

“Golf -hole” ureteric orifice is seen in:

Cause of bladder cancer are all except:

Painless hematuria is seen in all of the following except :

Which of the following is not a self -retaining urinary catheter:

Which of the followings renal stones may be large and still be asymptomatic for years:

Myoglobinuria is associated with which of the following:

Orchidopexy for incompletely descended testis is done after the age of:

Most common type of hypospadias is:

All of the following are features of Grave’s disease except:

True regarding ligation of inferior thyroid artery during thyroidectomy:

FNAC is useful in all except:

Features of hyperthyroidism are all except:

Metastasis from follicular carcinoma should be treated by:

Anti-TPO antibodies are present in:

All of the following are true regarding Grave’s disease except:

True regarding Papillary carcinoma of thyroid is:

Most common cause of solitary thyroid nodule is:

Thyroxine can be given in which thyroid carcinoma:

After thyroidectomy for medullary carcinoma of thyroid, which is important for determining recurrence of tumour:

Amyloid deposition is seen in which type of carcinoma thyroid:

All of the following are true regarding medullary carcinoma of thyroid except:

Which of the following is initial investigation of choice for a patient presenting with solitary nodule of thyroid:

Which of the following is not used in the management of thyrotoxic crisis:

A patient has undergone total thyroidectomy for papillary carcinoma of thyroid. Marker for follow-up of such a patient is:

Which of the following is the most useful investigation for thyroid function:

Most important prognostic factor for breast Carcinoma is:

Group of lymph node involved in breast carcinoma are all of the following except:

Unilateral breast involvement with scaly skin around the nipple and intermittent bleeding is suggestive of:

Simple Mastectomy includes removal of:

Peau d’Orange of breast is due to:

Structure preserved in Modified radical [Patey] mastectomy is:

Most unfavorable/poor prognosis is seen in which type of breast cancer:

True regarding breast carcinoma is:

All of the following are predisposing factors for breast carcinoma except:

Which of the following is most sensitive and specific screening test for carcinoma of breast:

Most common type of breast carcinoma is:

Which type of breast cancer is most likely to be bilateral:

Prognosis of breast cancer is best determined by:

Triple examination includes all except:

False statement regarding fibroadenoma:

Role of neo-adjuvant chemotherapy in breast carcinoma patient is:

Bleeding from nipple is seen in:

Both breasts are affected in which type of breast carcinoma:

Stones are most commonly seen in which salivary gland:

A man sustained injury and presented with fluid coming out through nose. What could be the possible fracture:

What is not found in head injury:

Minimum score in Glassgow Coma Scale:

Raised Intra cranial Pressure will cause:

Surgery of choice for pleomorphic adenoma is:

True statement regarding fracture base of the skull are all of the following except:

All of the following statement regarding stones in the submandibular gland are true except:

True regarding cystic hygroma is:

Most common congenital anomaly of the face is:

Carcinoma of tongue most commonly occur at:

Most common location of ectopic submandibular salivary gland tissue is:

True regarding Sjogren’s syndrome are all of the following except:

Branchial cyst arises from the which branchial cleft:

Most common tumour of eyelid is:

Surgical correction in cleft palate primarily aims at all of the following except:

Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid gland is most common after:

Bezold abscess is seen in:

Commonest malignancy type in oral cavity is:

Lucid interval is associated with:

False statement about cleft palate repair is:

Source of chronic subdural hematoma is:

Epidural hemorrhage commonly occurs from tearing of :

Emergency management for Tension pneumothorax is:

Management of flail chest with respiratory failure is :

True about flail chest are all except:

Carcinoma responding maximally to radiotherapy is:

Most common symptom in pulmonary embolism:

Condition which builds within hemithorax resulting in collapsed lung, flattened diaphragm, contralateral mediastinal shift and compromised venous return to right side of heart is known as:

IPPV is useful in:

Which of the following subtype of lung carcinoma produces superior vena cava syndrome:

What is the site for putting needle in chest in a patient with tension pneumothorax:

Which of the following is the cause of sudden and unexpected onset of dyspnea at rest: