FMGE – 2011 Previous Paper (March) Paper 2

Multiple black floaters are due to:

Accomodation is maximum in which of the following:

Unilateral proptosis in a 40 year old lady is commonly due to:

Excessive accommodation may result in:

Collection of which of the following in anterior chamber, is known as hyphaema:

Inability to completely close the palpebral aperture is known as :

Changes of megaloblastic anemia which may not be corrected by administering folic acid:

A 50 year old patient with abdominal discomfort since last 2 years, was found to have a large spleen of 3 kg. Bone marrow is difficult to aspirate. Most probable diagnosis is:

False statement regarding DIC is:

Fresh frozen plasma is used for:

A young girl presents with repeated episodes of bleeding. BT and APTT is prolonged and PT is normal. What is the likely condition:

Which of the following is a high pitched sound:

Kussmaul’s sign is seen in which of the following:

Following acute failure of left ventricle in man, pulmonary edema generally begins to appear when left atrial pressure approaches:

Drug used for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease:

Drug contra -indicated in HOCM is:

Wolff-Parkinson-White disease may be associated with which of the congenital heart defect:

A patient has serum creatinine of 150-300 micromol/L. Which of the following require dosage reduction:

Which is not true for renal cell carcinoma:

Positive D-xylose test indicates all of the following except :

Most common malignancy in AIDS is:

Average incubation period of AIDS is:

Adrenal insufficiency causes:

Pontine myelinolysis (cerebral osmotic demyelination) occurs due to rapid correction of:

Hyponatremia results in:

Not a component of thalamic syndrome:

Which of the following is not given for acute severe bronchial asthma:

Which of the following correlates well with the “severe” type of bronchial asthma exacerbation:

Cavitation of the lungs is not a feature of:

Most common cause of hypercapnic respiratory failure:

Hemoptysis is commonly seen in:

True about panacinar emphysema:

True about pleural effusion:

Which of the following is used for improving long term prognosis in COPD with resting hypoxemia:

Associated with obstructive sleep apnea are all of the following except:

A male presents with gynaecomastia, galactorrhoea and hypogonadism. Likely diagnosis is:

Tumour lysis syndrome is associated with treatment of :

Prognosis of lymphoma depends on all of the following except:

Regarding therapeutic uses of steroids, which of the following is not properly matched:

False statement for Pyrexia of unknown origin:

Specific antibody associated with primary biliary cirrhosis is:

In burns management (within 24 hours), which of the following is the medium of choice:

A 60 year old male has been operated for carcinoma of caecum and right hemicolectomy has been done. On the 4th post -operative day, the patient develops fever, swelling and pain in the legs. The most important clinical entity one should look for is:

Test which is not done for varicose veins:

Splenectomy is not done in:

Which is not a cause for burst abdomen:

Non -metabolic cause of abdominal pain:

Which of these is not a premalignant lesion of lesion:

In pyloric stenosis, the following changes are seen:

Treatment of choice for small intestine carcinoma:

Which of the following is a dynamic cause of intestinal obstruction:

Enteo-enteric fistula is seen in:

Sister Mary Joseph nodule is most commonly seen with :

Viscera, forms a wall in which of the following hernia :

Lord’s and Jaboulay’s operation is done for:

“Golf -hole” ureteric orifice is seen in:

Cause of bladder cancer are all except:

Painless hematuria is seen in all of the following except :

Which of the following is not a self -retaining urinary catheter:

Which of the followings renal stones may be large and still be asymptomatic for years:

Which of the following is not used in the management of thyrotoxic crisis:

A patient has undergone total thyroidectomy for papillary carcinoma of thyroid. Marker for follow-up of such a patient is:

Which type of breast cancer is most likely to be bilateral:

Prognosis of breast cancer is best determined by:

Triple examination includes all except:

False statement regarding fibroadenoma:

Role of neo-adjuvant chemotherapy in breast carcinoma patient is:

False statement about cleft palate repair is:

What is the site for putting needle in chest in a patient with tension pneumothorax:

Prognosis of malignant melanoma depends upon:

Which of the following is the best, parameter to assess fluid intake in a polytrauma patient :

Mismatched blood transfusion manifests intraoperatively as:

Massive transfusion in healthy adult male can cause hemorrhage due to:

Which of the following is triad of complication of massive blood transfusion:

Which of the following should be avoided initially in hemorrhagic shock:

Injury to which region may result in paraplegia:

Most common type of shoulder dislocation is:

The attitude of limb in posterior dislocation of hip joint:

Commonest cause of hematogenous osteomyelitis:

Earliest sign in X-ray in TB spine is:

The following are rheumatoid disease modifying drugs except:

Most common nerve injured in anterior shoulder dislocation :

Which bone tumour arises from an area around epiphyseal plate:

Most common primary bone tumour in adult bone is:

All are diagnostic features of osteomalacia except:

Child attains a height of 100 cm at the age of:

All are true about marasmus except:

Frequent form of childhood epilepsy is:

Which of the following is not useful in management of meconium aspiration syndrome:

Which of the following does not indicate an infant “good attachment” to mothers breast during breast feeding:

Which of the following is best used in the diagnosis of congenital syphilis:

The most common etiological agent for acute bronchiolotis in infancy is:

Which of the following pathological process is responsible for acute glomerulonephritis:

Transverse diameter of the female mid -pelvic plane is:

Embryonic structure, identified earliest on USG, for confirmation of pregnancy is:

Commonest presentation of hydatidiform mole is :

Which of the following (in maternal serum) indicate open neural tube defect:

Melasma, during pregnancy is seen on:

Partogram is used for:

Best time to do USG in pregnancy, if it is to be done once in entire pregnancy, would be:

Rate of involution of uterus is :

Risk of rupture of uterus with previous classical caesarean section is:

The mucosal lining of the vagina is composed of:

Oral pills may prevent the development of:

12. Disadvantage of depomedroxy progesterone acetate [DMPA]:

Oral contraceptives pills predisposes to which of the following :

Drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis:

Which of the following is an important tumour marker in the diagnosis of endodermal sinus tumour:

Treatment of choice in a young patient with primary dysmenorrhea is:

All of the following assist in predicting ovulation except:

All are true about hormonal levels in PolyCystic Ovarian Disease except:

Colposcope visualizes:

Laparascopy is indicated in all of the following except :

Marsupialization is the procedure done for:

Which of the following is not true regarding cryosurgery:

All of the following are advantages of laparoscope assisted vaginal hysterectomy (LAVH) over abdominal hysterectomy except:

Hysteroscopy is indicated in all of the following except :

The chromosomal complement is persons with Klinefelter’s syndrome is:

Which of the following organism is responsible for vesicular eruptions and ‘honey -coloured’ crusts over face:

Apple jelly nodule on diascopy, is a feature of:

An 8 year old female child following URTI developed maculopapular rash on the jaw spreading onto the trunk which cleared on the 3rd day without desquamation and tender post-auricular and sub-occipital lymphadenopathy. The diagnosis is:

Hidradenitis suppurativa is an affection of:

Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with:

Which of the following drug is used in scabies as single oral dose agent:

Whitening of the nail plates may be due to deficiency of :

Structures pierced in lumbar spinal puncture are all of the following except:

False statement about post-dural puncture headache (PDPH):

Which of the following is the most common post- operative complication related to intubation:

Which of the following is contraindicated during endotracheal intubation:

Method to establish a safer airway in a patient with neck trauma, cricoid fracture with possibility of a difficult airway:

Features differentiating dependence from other substance abuse:

Schneider’s first rank symptoms is seen in:

3rd person hallucinations are characteristic of:

Most common symptom of depression in India is:

All are features of delirium except:

Which of the following is not associated with dementia:

Best position for chest X-ray to detect minimal right pleural effusion:

In which of the following, a ‘coeur en sabot’/ boot shaped heart is seen:

Most important investigation for posterior urethral value :

Thumb print sign is seen in:

Adder head appearance is seen in:

In case of subarachnoid haemorrhage, investigation of choice is:

Excretory urography is contraindicated in:

The most radiosensitive tissue is:

In Radionuclide imaging, the most useful radio-pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is:

Which of the following is used to detect mucosa in Meckel’s diverticulum:

Tumour, most sensitive to radiotherapy:

Radio-isotope of iodine used for thyroid tissue destruction: